2013년 9월 30일 월요일

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시험 번호/코드: 1Z0-895
시험 이름: Oracle (Java Platform, Enterprise Edition 6 Enterprise JavaBeans Developer Certified Expert Exam)
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NO.1 public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

NO.2 Foo foo2 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.3 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Typically, remotely accessible objects should be coarse-grained.
B. If a client accesses an enterprise bean locally such access must be mediated by the EJB container.
C. A given enterprise bean's transaction information is immutable because it is deployed across various
containers.
D. If a container provides services NOT required by the EJB specification, then that container is NOT
considered to be an EJB container.
E. An enterprise bean's transaction Information can be accessed by external tools only if the information
is contained in an XML deployment descriptor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which API must an EJB 3.1 container make available to enterprise beans at runtime? (Choose one)
A. The JXTA 1.1 API
B. The MIDP 2.0 API
C. The Java SE 6 JNDI API
D. The Java SE 5 JDBC API
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBean with one remote business interface Foo. Foo
defines an integer / setter method pair implemented as:

NO.6 A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business
interface:
1. package acme;
2. public interface Bar {
3. public void bar ();
4. }
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the
bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1. package acme;
2. import javax.ejb.*;
3. import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.

NO.7 foo1.setvalue(1);
Which statement is true after the code at line 15 completes?
A. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
B. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
C. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
D. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
Answer: D

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10.A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote
containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type
MyData.
11. public class MyData implements java.io.Serialization {
12. int a;
13. }
Methods foo is implemented with the FooBean class as:
11. public void foo (MyData data) {
12. data.a = 2;
13. }
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in variable fooRef and
calls method foo with the following code:
11. MyData data = new MyData();
12. data.a = 1;
13. Fooref.foo(data);
14. System.out.printIn(data.a);
What is the value of data.a when control reaches Line 14 of the client?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
Answer: B

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NO.8 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and
B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls, and
can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is defined
as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. for example, B is of
type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and
activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans no-arg
constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate
annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate
annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type
and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 Assume you would like to receive notification from the container as a stateless session bean transitions
to and from the ready state.
Which of the following life cycle back annotations would you use? (Choose one.)
A. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy
B. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy
C. @PreConstruct, @PostDestroy
D. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy, @Remove
E. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy, @Remove
Answer: B

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NO.10 Foo foo1 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.11 public int getValue () {return value; }
A session bean ClientBean has a business method doSomething and an ejb-ref with ejb-ref-name
fooRef
that is mapped to FooBean s Foo interface.
11. @Resource private SessionContext SessionCtx;
12. public void doSomething () {

NO.12 private int value;

NO.13 }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = Bar )
public class Barbean implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = bar )
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

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7.A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients are
written by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the bean when
ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined bean cache
size.
The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either passivation or
timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation and
timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establish references to resources in an omit annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @preDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a SPrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Answer: C,D,E

Oracle   1Z0-895   1Z0-895기출문제

NO.14 A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer chooses an
EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business component tier?
(Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.15 A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most appropriate
technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution.? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP.
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.
Answer: C,E

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시험 번호/코드: 1Z0-574
시험 이름: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials )
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NO.1 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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NO.2 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.7 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-574   1Z0-574

NO.9 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-574기출문제   1Z0-574

NO.11 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

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NO.15 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.16 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.17 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.18 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 1Z0-581
시험 이름: Oracle (Pillar Axiom 600 Storage System Essentials Exam)
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NO.1 The storage administrator needs to download the CLI for scripting purposes. Identify where
administrator should go to download the CLI.
A. the HTML from the Pilot:
B. the customer FTP site
C. the Support tab in the AxiomONE GUI
D. the customer support center
E. the customer support portal
Answer: C

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NO.2 The storage administrator is creating a volume and wants to protect it from a full Brick failure. Identify
the protection level needed to accomplish this configuration.
A. Standard Redundancy
B. RAID10
C. Double Redundancy
D. assigning the volume toa Storage Domain
Answer: C

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NO.3 Data Protection Manager gives you the capability to schedule backups of the application data on
regular basis. Identify the name for the scheduled backups.
A. checkpoints
B. consistency groups
C. point-in-time backups
D. application-aware backup
Answer: D

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NO.4 By using which Pillar Axiom feature can you allocate system resources and handle data flow according
to its business priority?
A. Quality of Service
B. Thin Provisioning
C. Storage Domains
D. Storage Profiles
Answer: A

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NO.5 The development team needs a volume that contains data from the production system for testing.
Identify the best Pillar Axiom storage system method that can solve this challenge.
A. Copy LUN
B. Clone LUN
C. Snapshot
D. Clone Volume
Answer: B

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NO.6 Indentify what must be required in order to receive alerts and email notifications from the Axiom storage
system.
A. Email server
B. SNMP host
C. Call Home enabled
D. Primary Administratorcreated
Answer: A

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NO.7 The storage administrator is creating a LUN. Which organizational units can the LUN be assigned to?
A. Storage Class
B. Typical Access
C. Volume Group
D. Storage Domain
E. Clone LUN Group
Answer: C

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NO.8 The storage administrator is viewing the Axiom storage systems and would like to create a volume for
the SAN host. Which GUI component is used to manage this task?
A. AxiomONE MaxMan
B. AxiomONE Storage Services Manager
C. AxiomONEStorage Manager
D. AxiomONEQoS Manager
Answer: A

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NO.9 Why does it matter if the source power for a PDU is 115v, 208v, or 230v?
A. The Bricks, Slammers, and Pilots will draw different amperes depending on the input to the PDU.
B. The Bricks and Slammers will draw different amperes depending on the input to the PDU but the Pilot
will not draw much to make a difference.
C. The Bricks and Pilots will draw the same amperes and not enough to make a difference but the
Slammers will draw different amperes depending on the input to the PDU.
D. It does not matter because the Bricks, Slammers, and Pilots will draw the same amperes.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three Axiom storage system resources can the storage administrator monitor?
A. Running Tasks
B. Storage Usage
C. System Alerts
D. SAN Host Performance
E. SAN Switch Tasks
F. Power Usage
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 Identify the information required during the installation of the Axiom VSS plug-in. Select all that apply.
A. User Name
B. Password
C. System Serial Number
D. VSS Provider Name
E. Port Number
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 From which three sources can the system information be collected and placed into the bundle?
A. Slammer hardware components
B. Brick hardware components
C. Client hosts with APM
D. AxiomONEStorage Manager
E. SAN Switch
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 The storage administrator would like to modify one of the system profiles. How can the storage
administrator do this?
A. by selecting "Manage Standard Storage Profiles" and modifying the system profile
B. by selecting "Manage Advanced Storage Profiles" and modifying the system profile
C. by selecting "Manage Standard Storage Profiles" and duplicating the system profile
D. by selecting "Manage Advanced Storage Profiles" and duplicating the system profile
Answer: D

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NO.14 The storage administrator is looking for a specific event in the event log. Identify three event severities
that can be filtered.
A. Informational
B. Critical
C. Error
D. Warning
E. Normal
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 Identify what the default trending charts provide.
A. Defaulttrending charts provide a quick overview of the most commonly referred tocharacteristicsof the
selected LUN overthe last few hours.
B. Default trending charts provide a quick overview of the most commonly referred to characteristics of
the selected LUN over the last 24 hours.
C. Default trending charts provide a detailed overview of the most commonly referred to characteristics of
the selected LUN over the last few hours.
D. Default trending charts provide a detailed overview of the most commonly referred to characteristics of
the selected LUN over the last 24 hours.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 1Z0-583
시험 이름: Oracle (Oracle User Productivity Kit 11 Technical Consultant Essentials Exam)
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NO.1 You have defined a number of customizations for the Knowledge Center user interface.However, when
you test them, the customizations are not displayed.You have verified that the modified files have all been
placed in the proper directories.
What might be the reason your customizations are not appearing?
A.The local browser cache on the client system accessing the Knowledge Center must be cleared for the
customizations to appear.
B.You may be using an unsupported browser.Test your customizations in Internet Explorer version 8 or 9.
C.You may not have restarted the Web services on the Knowledge Center server.This will reload the.lng
and .cus files on the web server.
D.It you logged in to the Knowledge Center before you performed your customization, you will need to log
in as a new user to see the customizations.
Answer: C

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NO.2 UPK Developer requires Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.Some of the machines in the organization
where Developer will be installed already have .NET Framework 3.5 installed, but most do
not.Organizational policy dictates that ALL of the machines where Developer will be installed DO NOT
have access to the internet for security reasons.The UPK installer comes packaged with a "bootstrap"
installer for .NET Framework 3.5, which connects to the Internet to install .NET Framework 3.5 from there.
Identify the method that would ensure that UPK Developer is installed securely with its .NET Framework
3.5 requirement.
A.Temporarily allow all machines access to the Internet during the duration of the distribution of the
installation, so that the "bootstrap" installer can connect properly.
B.Embed the full .NET Framework 3.5 installer package within the UPK installer, allowing the UPK
installer to use that package Instead of "bootstrap."
C.Ensure force installation of .NET Framework 3.5 on ALL machines before the installation of UPK
Developer.
D.Install only to the machines with .NET Framework 3.5 already installed; delay installation on other
machines until they have been updated with .NET Framework 3.5.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your client needs to reclaim space on their server.To reclaim the space, they want to purge the deleted
documents found in the library.Your client expressed concern that some of the documents may still be
referenced by other documents in the library.These documents may need to be recovered in the future.
Which action do you need to take to purge only the documents that are no longer being used?
A.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links in, as displayed in the lower panel.
B.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links to, as displayed in the upper panel.
C.Open the Brokenlinks panefrom the View Menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no broken links in.
D.Open the Lost Document view.Because this shows only the document with no links in, you can purge all
deleted files from view.
E.Select all files in the deleted Document view and purge them, because those documents that are linked
to by nondeleted documents will be purged.
Answer: A

Oracle덤프   1Z0-583인증   1Z0-583 dump   1Z0-583인증

NO.4 A content author requests your help.
The UPK Developer does not correctly recognize objects and action areas while recording a target
application.The author provides you with a sample topic to review.You notice that the target application
appears in a VMware Player virtual machine window in the screenshots.The action areas cover the entire
virtual machine window, and the objects in the target application cannot be recognized.
How can you fix this problem?
A.The author should disable automatic recording, because it degrades object recognition when used with
a virtualization software.
B.The author should maximize the VMware Player window during recording so that the UPK Developer
can recognize the objects in the application.
C.The UPK Developer should be installed in the virtual machine, and the target application should be
recorded inside the virtual machine.
D.Exact Match is disabled by default for VMware Player in "Target Application Configuration" in the
Options dialog box.This setting must be enabled.
Answer: C

Oracle pdf   1Z0-583자료   1Z0-583자료   1Z0-583   1Z0-583

NO.5 Your client has deployed the UPK Developer on a Citrix server, so content authors can access it remotely
in Citrix seamless windows.The target application was also installed on the same server.The authors are
unable to record content.
Choose three actions that you would take to help discover the problem.
A.Ensure that the "Time to hide recorder window before screen capture" setting in the Options dialog box
is Increased to at least three seconds.
B.Ensure that the target application (the web browser for web applications) runs in the same Citrix
session as the Developer.
C.Ensure that keyboard shortcuts are not recorded automatically.
D.Ensure that the screen shot capture key is changed from the default.
E.Ensure that the sound is correctly set up in Citrix.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: Remote and Virtual Environments The Developer can operate in remote and
virtual environments such as Citrix and VMware.The following are known issues when operating the
Developer in these environments:
Citrix: *(B)When recording a target application running in a Citrix session, then Developer must be
running in the same Citrix session.
*(E)Sound output will likely be choppy.
* (D)Citrix does not pass the [PrintScreen] key to applications running in seamless windows.The
Developer uses the [PrintScreen] key as the default key for recording topics.Therefore, the Recorder will
not properly recognize the [PrintScreen] key in a Citrix seamless window.The recording key can be
changed in the Options dialog box in the Developer.
Reference: OracleUser Productivity Kit, Installation And Administration Release 11.0,Remote and Virtual
Environments

NO.6 Which of the following is required to enable end-user access of UPK-generated content-sensitive help
in an application using the UPK Help Integration method?
A.The application administrator must manually map context IDs from each page to the appropriate URLs
for help.
B.The application administrator must make minor configuration changes to the application.
C.The application developer must write custom code to enable the help system to launch nonapplication
help files.
D.The application administrator must use the UPK Developer ¯ s C on t ex t Ed it o r t o m ap t he app li ca ti on
context.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are asked to attend a presales call to support your field account representative with a sale of
UPK.The account representative has asked you to participate in the meeting because the client has
questions about deploying In-Application Support using the SmartHelp browser add-in option in UPK.
The client wants to know what is required to deploy SmartHelp to their user community.
Identify the best response.
A.SmartHelp is deployed from a web server by having the user access setup file in the playerpackage
directory.Users installing SmartHelp must have admin privileges and configure the browsers for ActiveX
controls.
B.SmartHelp is deployed to the user community by installing the UPK single-user option on the end user's
desktop and configuring the browser for ActiveX controls.
C.The SmartHelp browser add-in is deployed using the in-application support configuration utility to push
an ActiveX control to the user population.
D.SmartHelp needs only a web server to run on and is plug-in free.Therefore, it does not require
Installation to deploy it to the user population.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-583   1Z0-583최신덤프   1Z0-583자격증

NO.8 You are engaged as a UPK administrator and publisher for a customer who is in the process of
upgrading their Oracle EBS application suite to R12.x.The UPK content development team has finished
the first set of topics and asked you to publish the content, so their SMEs can directly access the topic
they are responsible for.The SMEs are busy and do not have time to download Individual topics.
Which method should you choose to publish and distribute the content?
A.Publish the content to the individual topic outputs and host the topics on a web server providing links to
each topic.
B.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and distribute the player package folder to each SME.
C.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide the
SMEs with a link to the play.exe file.
D.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide
content developers a link tokp.html.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the first step to set up an unattended installation of the Knowledge Center?
A.Run the executable silently.
B.Record the parameter file by using the /r parameter.
C.Log a support ticket.
D.Use a third-party program to record the installation options.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are the minimum permissions needed to run the install scripts?
A.DB_Accessadmin, DB_Owner
B.DataReader, DataWriter, DB_Owner
C.DataReader, DataWriter
D.DB_Accessadmin
E.DB_Owner
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-583인증   1Z0-583덤프   1Z0-583

NO.11 During the installation of 110 PRO, you receive an error message.What is the first task you do when
entering My Oracle Support ?
A.Log a Sev 1 Service request.
B.Look in the Knowledge base for known issues.
C.Look in patches and updates to see if there is a patch to download to resolve the issue.
D.Create a forum post asking other clients and support representatives for clues or steps to be taken to
resolve the issue.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-583   1Z0-583시험문제   1Z0-583

NO.12 Identify two true statements about the installation of the Knowledge Center User Import Utility.
A.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only before the Knowledge Center Is
installed.
B.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on the same server as the Knowledge
Center.
C.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on any workstation that can connect to the
Knowledge Center.
D.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only in the Knowledge Center application
root directory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 While you are working offline, the training administrator changes the permissions to the folder in which
you have created a new topic.The permissions are changed to "List Only."
What happens when you go online and your library is synchronized with the server?
A.The content administrator is warned automatically and will restore your folder permissions so that your
work is safe.
B.The document will appear in the Lost document view.
C.The permissions for the folder are automatically restored to modify permissions during the
synchronization.
D.I can revert the permissions myself after I receive a system warning.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A content administrator has asked you to troubleshoot a multi-user UPK Installation: the authors unable
to connect to the server.The administrator sent you the following message from a Windows event log:
The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to
"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET \Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.
Where can you fix this permission problem?
A.On the Oracle database server
B.On the affected client workstations
C.In the UPK library
D.On the application server
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-583시험문제   1Z0-583인증   1Z0-583

NO.15 Identify three compatible file formats that can be used when updating or customizing your logo in UPK.
A.JPG
B.PPT
C.TIF
D.BMP
E.EXE
F.PDF
G.HTML
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.16 A UPK content author has a single-user installation of UPK 3.6.1 on his or her computer.The author
would like to keep this installation on his or her machine, but also wants to Install the single user of UPK
11.0.
Identify the process that enables this.
A.The content author needs to create an .odarc file of all the content he or she wants to keep from the
3.6.1 single-user Installation, and then uninstall 3.6.1.After 3.6.1 is uninstalled, the author can install
11.0.Two different versions of UPK single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
B.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in a folder structure that is different
from where the UPK 3.6.1 is installed.Both versions of the developer can be launched independently.
C.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and Install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 Installation.This will upgrade the 3.6.1 installation to version 11.0.Two different versions of UPK
single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
D.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 installation.Because the cache locations of 11.0 and 3.6.1 are different, the two versions of the UPK
can be launched independently.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-583   1Z0-583자료

NO.17 Identify three statements that are true about the Installation of service pack updates.
A.You can install these updates without having to reinstall the Developer.
B.If both UPK and Knowledge Center need to be updated, you must run the installer twice.
C.As part of the service pack, you must reinstall the UPK Developer.
D.After installing a service pack for the Developer, you should update each Developer Library with the
appropriate service pack documents.
E.Service packs will run automatically and you do not need to worry about updating your toolset.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 UPK supported languages are grouped by the Tier Structure, Tier 1 and Tier 2.Which of the following is
not translated if it is a Tier 2 language?
A.Player Interface
B.Developer
C.Default and Microsoft template Text
D.Static text in Document publishing formats
Answer: B

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NO.19 You maintain a single UPK Developer Library that includes content for the entire organization.You
have created an outline that includes all of the content for the current project.However, some of the
content is sensitive and should be visible only to the Human Resources group.
Which process enables you to maintain this library of content and deliver it to the organization without
exposing the sensitive content to the entire organization?
A.Duplicate the outline and remove the Human Resources topics from the duplicate.Deliver the full outline
to the Human Resources group and the duplicate outline to the entire organization.
B.Create a new outline and link all of the existing modules with the exception of the Human Resources
module.Deliver the full outline to the Human Resources group and the smaller outline to the entire
organization.
C.Create a Role named "Sensitive." Add this Role to all of the Human Resources content.Publish the
outline and use Roles to filter the content appropriately based on the user's role.
D.Create a State named Human Resources" Add this State to the Human Resources content.Use
"Publish by State" to publish one outline with and one outline without the Human Resources State.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You can deploy your UPK content by placing the Player package on a web server and making it
available to your users.You do this by copying the contents of the Player Package folder in the published
content.Then you will need to create a link to two files.
Identify the two files.
A.play.exe
B.index.html
C.default.htm
D.tocx.html
E.kp.html
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 What is the role of the allocateItemRelQuantity chain?
A. to mark Shipping group as shipped
B. to purchase items from pre-order, back order, or regular stock usinginventory
C. to reorganize Items across shipping groups
D. to allocate items related to the quantity on hand
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify the problem with the following targeter rule set:
<ruleset><accepts><rule op=eq name= "Guitar News"><valueof target = "newsType"><valueof
constant
= "guitar"></rule><rule op = includes name = "Guitar players"><valueof bean =
"Profile.preferredcategory"><valueof constant = "guitars"></rule></accepts><accepts><rule op = eq
name = "Bass News"><valueof constant = "bass"></rule><rule op=includes name= "Bass
players"><valueof bean = "profile.preferencedCategory"><valueof constant =
"bass"></rule></accepts></ruleset>
A. All rule sets need a"reject rule".
B. All rule sets need a sorting directive.
C. Rules cannot containtwo accept directives.
D. A rule set cannot reference repository items.
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-510   1z0-510

NO.3 What would be the Ground and Expedited shipping prices for an order of a single item with a
price of
15.99 and having a weight of 42 with this configuration (assume no active shipping promotions)?
/atg/commerce/pricing/shippingPricingEngine.Properties: PreCalculators =Calculators/GroundshippingCalculator,\ Calculator/ExpiditedShippingCalculator
postCalculators=calculators/MypostCalculator
/atg/commerce/pricing/calculators/GrowthShippingCalculators.proprties:
$class=atg.commerce.pricing.priceRangeShippingCalculator ignoreShippingMethod=false
shippingmethod=Ground ranges =00.00:15.99:4.50,\ 16.00:30.99:6.00,\ 31.00:40.99:7.25,\ 41.00:MAX_VALUE:10.00
/atg/commerce/pricing/calculators/ExpeditedShippingCalculators.proprties:
$class=atg.commerce.pricing.priceRangeShippingCalculator ignoreShippingMethod=false
shippingmethod=Expedited ranges =00.00:15.99:4.50,\ 16.00:30.99:6.00,\ 31.00:40.99:7.25,\ 41.00:MAX_VALUE:10.00
/atg/commerce/pricing/calculators/MyPostCalculators.properties:
$class=atg.commerce.pricing.FixedPriceShippingCalculator
AddAmount=true
ignoreShippingMethod=true
shippingmethod=SpecialSurcharge
amount=4.99
A. Ground: 4.50, Expedited: 10.00
B. Ground: 10.00, Expedited: 10.00
C. Ground: 4.99, Expedited: 4.99
D. Ground: 9.49, Expedited: 14.99
Answer: D

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NO.4 Assume that a versioned repository item in your application is not changed on the store
serves hut is only changed on the CA Server and published to the store server.
Which caching mechanism should you choose for it on the store server?
A. any of the CA-aware caching modes such as locked, distributed, or hybrid
B. Locked Caching
C. Immutable Item Caching
D. Simple Caching
E. No caching is necessary. Database will cache the Items as they do not change on the server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the reanimated order?
A. INCOMPLETEorders that have not been checked out by customers andinstead have remained idle
for
a duration of time
B. Previously abandoned orders that have since been modified by the customerinsome way, such as
adding items or changing item quantities.
C. Previously abandoned orders that have been successfully checked out by the customer.
D. Abandoned orders that have been abandoned for so long that reanimation of the order is no
longer
considered realistic.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What do you need to do to disable ATG's Out-of-the-Box behavior of persisting order
change?
A. Set /atg/commerce/order/OrderTools.persistOrders = false
B. Set/atg/commerce/order/OrderManager.persistOrders=false
C. Set /atg/commerce/ShoppingCart.persistOrders = false
D. ATG does not allow you to modify this behavior.
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-510   1z0-510   1z0-510

NO.7 You are creating a primary table and an auxiliary table for an Item descriptor in the versioned
schema.
What are the properties that must be added to the tables?
A. You only need to add asset_version to both the tables.
B. You need to add asset_version to both the tables.inaddition, the primary table required seven
other
columns, such as version_editable, version_deleted, etc.
C. You need to add asset_version to both the tables.inaddition, the auxiliary table requires seven
other
columns, such as version_editable, version_deleted, etc.
D. You need to add asset_version and seven other columns, such as version_editable, version
deleted to
both the tables.
E. You need to add asset, version to the primary table and seven columns, such
asversion_editable,version deleted, etc. to the auxiliary tables.
F. You need to add seven columns, such as version_editable, version deleted, etc. to the primary
table
and only asset_version to the auxiliary table.
Answer: B

Oracle   1z0-510덤프   1z0-510덤프   1z0-510인증

NO.8 Which component should a shareable component be registered with?
A. /atg/multisite/SiteGroupManager
B. /atg/multisite/SiteConfiguration
C. /atg/multisite/SharedComponentConfiguration
D. /atg/nucleus/multisite
Answer: A

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NO.9 How many current and saved orders does ATG allow a user profile to have?
A. ATG allows one current order and one saved order per user profile.
B. ATGallows one current order and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
C. ATG allows multiple current orders and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
D. Only one order can exist for a Give user profileinATG. There is no support for saved orders.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three reasons justify why customers should choose Oracle ATG Web Commerce as their
cross channel commerce platform.?
A. It is the most complete andintegrated e-commerce solutioninthe market.
B. It has the most flexible, modular, and elegant architecture compared to other competing
solutions.
C. It features production-ready reference applications that can be easily customized to meet your
application requirements.
D. It is the easiest platform to implement a compared e-commerce solutioninthe market.
E. It has the best online merchandising business tools and applications of all competing solutions.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 If you want to update the computedCatalogs and parentCatalog properties of a product, which
service should you use?
A. ProductUpdateService
B. CatalogGeneratorService
C. AncestorGeneratorService
D. ComputedCatalogService
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-510   1z0-510   1z0-510   1z0-510기출문제   1z0-510

NO.12 Identify the significance of using cascade="insert" from the snippet below:
<item-descriptive name= "user">
<property name= "favoriteArticles" data-type = "list" component-list-item-type = "articles" cascade
=
"insert">
</item-descriptive>
A. An item of type articles is created once a new user is created.
B. If a user is deleted, all itemsinarticles of that user are deleted.
C. insert is ignored for properties that use the attribute component item-type.
D. An article named favoriteArticles is created.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two ASE tasks can be performed from the ACC but not the BCC?
A. creating a custom product catalog
B. creating targeters
C. creating scenarios
D. creating slots
E. creating products and SKUs
Answer: C,D

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시험 번호/코드: 1Z0-508
시험 이름: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g General Ledger Essentials)
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NO.1 The Receivables and Payables accounts that are automatically generated by intercompany
transactions use rules and attributes in what order?
A. Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger Level Rules;Chart of
Account Rules
B. Ledger entity Level Rules; ledger Level Rules; Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing
Segment Rules
C. Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
D. Ledger Level Rules;Primary Balancing Segment Rules;Ledger Entity Level Rules; Chart of
Accounts Rules
E. Chart of Account Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules, Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
Answer: A

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NO.2 When reconciling transactions, accounted amounts in a reconciliation report may be different
due
to differences in the currency conversion rates used. To mitigate the differences in the account
balances you should ____________.
A. Run the report using an additional common currency conversion rate
B. Run additional reports using a number of varied currency conversion rates
C. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Receivables account and rerun the report
D. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Payables account and rerun the report
Answer: D

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NO.3 An invoice with two lines is entered, later that day an adjustment is made to the invoice to add
another line. At the end of the day, the invoice is sent to the Fusion Accounting Hub. How many
events would you create?
A. Twoevents: one for invoice creation and one for the adjustment
B. Oneeventforinvoice creation; adjustment happened before transaction sent to the Fusion
Accounting Hub
C. Threeevents: one for invoice creation and two for line creation
D. Fourevents: one for invoice creation, one each for the two lines arid one for the adjustment
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are NOT included in the intercompany reconciliation reports?
A. Clearing company balancing lines
B. Intercompany receivables and intercompany lines generated by the intercompany balancing
feature
C. Intercompany receivables and Intercompany payables lines generated for the provider and
receiver of each intercompany transaction
D. Ledger balancing lines generated when the primary balancing segment value is in balance
butneither the second balancing segment northird balancing segment is out of balance; clearing
company balancing lines
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-508   1Z0-508   1Z0-508자격증   1Z0-508

NO.5 Where do you perform real-time, ad hoc queries from a data warehouse?
A. General Accounting and Journals dashboards
B. Oracle Transaction Business Intelligence
C. Oracle Business Intelligence Analytics
D. Account Monitory and Account Inspector
Answer: D

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NO.6 Identify the option that needs to be selected at the header level when assigning a header
level
subledger Journal Rule Set.
A. Accounting Date
B. Description
C. Supporting Reference
D. Ledger
E. Currency
Answer: A

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NO.7 During the analysis phase of the implementation, it was discovered that there were some
expense
entries that are paid in the current month for services rendered in the next month, the client wants
to defer the expense and recognize it in the next month. What would you recommend?
A. Create two accounting events: one for payment and one for recognition.
B. Use Account Derivation rules to create two different entries.
C. Use multiperiod accounting-enabled Journal Line Types.
D. Use Journal Line Definitions.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Identify two INVALID features of POV in Financial Reporting Studio.
A. Multiple grids cannot be Included in a report.
B. To identify that a dimension is set for grid POV, text row foot note should be added for a
gridPOV for a dimension.
C. A memberselection function with CurrentPOV as the member parameter changes to a User
POV when members are selected from a row, column or page axis on a grid.
D. POV book is specific to any report or grid object in report in that book.
E. All POVs allow a single member to be set for a dimension.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 XYZ Company has two departments: Marketing and Finance. The Finance Department has two
Functional divisions: receivables and payables. Select the flow for establishing hierarchy.
A. Hierarchy between functional divisions only
B. Hierarchy between departments only
C. Hierarchy between the organization and its departments, and between the departments and
their respective functional divisions
D. hierarchy between the organization and its departments and functional divisions only
Answer: C

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NO.10 Choose the two Oracle Hyperion Reporting and Analysis products and artifacts, that can be
imported into financial Reporting.
A. Dynamic Report (* .des)
B. Impact Manage Transformation Scripts (*. Js)
C. Snapshot Reports (*.rpt)
D. Books. (*.kbk)
Answer: C,D

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시험 이름: Oracle (Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials)
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NO.1 When your WebLogic Server solution needs to be scaled out with additional capacity and you
don’t want to add additional hardware, which three techniques should you us?
A. Assign more than one managed server to a physical hardware that allows better CPU
utilization.
B. Assign more than one application to one managed server to better utilize threads within a single
JVM process.
C. Assign the same application to more than one managed server to load balance requests
between servers.
D. Assign the same heap size to the managed server across the cluster for easier control of
memory footprint
E. Create a virtualized environment with hypervisor for an easier solution
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 A common approach to solve application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which
two
reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?
A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.
B. Adding more hardware is costly and time consuming.
C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded
database, network appliance, or storage system.
D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multinode
Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide significant performance benefit?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-599   1z0-599최신덤프   1z0-599

NO.4 A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their
customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?
A. Sessions can't be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider
redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.
B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production
mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying application.
C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can't be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying
application.
D. Use flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side
deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.
E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are
preserved without any extra settings.
Answer: D

Oracle자료   1z0-599   1z0-599인증

NO.5 You deploy more than one application to the same WebLogic container. The security is set on
JavaEE level and all deployed JavaEE applications use the same security roles.
What is your recommendation for an architecture with those requirement
A. Combine all applications into a single one.
B. Define global roles on the WebLogic Domain level.
C. Use Ms Active Directory to keep the roles there.
D. Use Oracle Identity and Access Management solution to simplify the management.
E. Keep role mapping in the external WebLogic Role Mapped developed for that solution.
Answer: B

Oracle   1z0-599   1z0-599

NO.6 A highly available WebLogic cluster in UNIX is configured for automatic server migration. Node
Managed is configured on both machines to start managed servers.
How should you simulate a managed server failure to test whether automatic server migration is
working?
A. Shut down the managed server from the WebLogic console.
B. Shut down the managed server using the WLST command through Node Manager.
C. Run "kill -9" once to kill the managed server process.
D. Run "kill -9" to kill the managed server process, and run "kill -9" one more time if the managed
server is restarting.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer needs to implement a Highly Available solution for JMS that has a primary data
center
and a backup. Which three steps would you perform when designing your solution?
A. Store Transaction Logs in a database and use Database stores for JMS to make replication
between sites easier.
B. Use file based Transaction Logs and JMS stores and implement a separate replication solution
for files in addition to database in case database replication fails.
C. Implement Oracle RAC at each site to provide a highly available solution within each
datacenter.
D. Configure Whole Server Migration to migrate WebLogic Managed Servers from the primary to
the secondary site.
E. Configure Automatic Service Migration for JMS high availability within a datacenter.
Answer: A,C,E

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시험 번호/코드: 1Z0-597
시험 이름: Oracle (SPARC T4-Based Server Installation Essentials)
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Q&A: 89 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Activating Auto Service Request (ASR) Assets______.
A. is done on the Asset only
B. is done on both the Asset and the ASR Manager system
C. is done on the ASR Manager system only
D. is done on My Oracle Support only
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the main objective of having Enterprise Installation Standards (EIS)?
A. To create a framework for tracking improperly installed systems
B. To produce consistent, high-quality installations
C. To produce systems optimized for Oracle software deployment
D. To create a framework for tracking properly installed systems
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two tasks are required to install and configure Oracle VM Server for SPARC
Management
Information Base (MIB) software?
A. Install Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB software on the primary and guest domains
B. Install Oracle VM Sever for SPARC MIB software on the primary domain only
C. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris SMA
D. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris FMA
Answer: BC

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NO.4 What is out-of-order execution?
A. A feature of certain processors, where instructions are processed based on the availability of data
B. A feature of certain multicore processors, where a core can be given processing priority over
other
cores
C. A memory architecture feature, where specific data can be delivered to processors at the fastest
possible rate
D. A feature of certain operating systems, where programs are executed based on the availability of
data
Answer: A

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NO.5 dentify the three ways that integrated, no-chip networking improves network performance.
A. Eliminates I/O protocol translation inefficiencies
B. Reduces memory latency
C. Eliminates the need for multiple DMA (direct memory access) engines
D. Provides higher memory bandwidth
Answer: ABC

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