2014년 2월 28일 금요일

도비 Symantec ST0-074 시험

Symantec ST0-074인증시험이 이토록 인기가 많으니 우리ITExamDump에서는 모든 힘을 다하여 여러분이 응시에 도움을 드리겠으며 또 일년무료 업뎃서비스를 제공하며, ITExamDump 선택으로 여러분은 자신의 꿈과 더 가까워질 수 있습니다. 희망찬 내일을 위하여 ITExamDump선택은 정답입니다. ITExamDump선택함으로 당신이 바로 진정한IT인사입니다.

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-074
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
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Q&A: 99 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-27

Symantec ST0-074인증시험은 현재IT업계에서 아주 인기 있는 시험입니다.많은 IT인사들이 관연 자격증을 취득하려고 노력하고 있습니다.Symantec ST0-074인증시험에 대한 열기는 식지 않습니다.Symantec ST0-074자격증은 여러분의 사회생활에 많은 도움이 될 것이며 연봉상승 등 생활보장에 업그레이드 될 것입니다.

Symantec인증ST0-074시험을 위하여 최고의 선택이 필요합니다. ITExamDump 선택으로 좋은 성적도 얻고 하면서 저희 선택을 후회하지 않을것니다.돈은 적게 들고 효과는 아주 좋습니다.우리ITExamDump여러분의 응시분비에 많은 도움이 될뿐만아니라Symantec인증ST0-074시험은 또 일년무료 업데이트서비스를 제공합니다.작은 돈을 투자하고 이렇게 좋은 성과는 아주 바람직하다고 봅니다.

ST0-074 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/ST0-074.html

NO.1 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-074인증   ST0-074

NO.2 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

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NO.3 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

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NO.4 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-074자격증   ST0-074

NO.9 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074자격증   ST0-074시험문제

NO.11 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

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NO.12 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074기출문제   ST0-074자료   ST0-074

NO.14 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.15 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.16 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.17 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.18 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074최신덤프   ST0-074

NO.19 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

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우리 ITExamDump에서는 여러분을 위하여 정확하고 우수한 서비스를 제공하였습니다. 여러분의 고민도 덜어드릴 수 있습니다. 빨리 성공하고 빨리Symantec ST0-029인증시험을 패스하고 싶으시다면 우리 ITExamDump를 장바구니에 넣으시죠 . ITExamDump는 여러분의 아주 좋은 합습가이드가 될것입니다. ITExamDump로 여러분은 같고 싶은 인증서를 빠른시일내에 얻게될것입니다.

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ITExamDump의Symantec ST0-029시험자료의 문제와 답이 실제시험의 문제와 답과 아주 비슷합니다. 우리의 짧은 학습가이드로 빠른 시일 내에 관련지식을 터득하여 응시준비를 하게 합니다. 우리는 우리의Symantec ST0-029인증시험덤프로 시험패스를 보장합니다.

Symantec인증 ST0-029시험은 인기있는 IT자격증을 취득하는데 필요한 국제적으로 인정받는 시험과목입니다. Symantec인증 ST0-029시험을 패스하려면 ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-029덤프로 시험준비공부를 하는게 제일 좋은 방법입니다. ITExamDump덤프는 IT전문가들이 최선을 다해 연구해낸 멋진 작품입니다. Symantec인증 ST0-029덤프구매후 업데이트될시 업데이트버전을 무료서비스료 제공해드립니다.

시험 번호/코드: ST0-029
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 161 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-27

Symantec인증ST0-029시험을 위하여 최고의 선택이 필요합니다. ITExamDump 선택으로 좋은 성적도 얻고 하면서 저희 선택을 후회하지 않을것니다.돈은 적게 들고 효과는 아주 좋습니다.우리ITExamDump여러분의 응시분비에 많은 도움이 될뿐만아니라Symantec인증ST0-029시험은 또 일년무료 업데이트서비스를 제공합니다.작은 돈을 투자하고 이렇게 좋은 성과는 아주 바람직하다고 봅니다.

저희가 알아본 데 의하면 많은it인사들이Symantec인증ST0-029시험을 위하여 많은 시간을 투자하고 잇다고 합니다.하지만 특별한 학습 반 혹은 인터넷강이 같은건 선택하지 않으셨습니다.때문에 패스는 아주 어렵습니다.보통은 한번에 패스하시는 분들이 적습니다.우리 ITExamDump에서는 아주 믿을만한 학습가이드를 제공합니다.우리 ITExamDump에는Symantec인증ST0-029테스트버전과Symantec인증ST0-029문제와 답 두 가지 버전이 있습니다.우리는 여러분의Symantec인증ST0-029시험을 위한 최고의 문제와 답 제공은 물론 여러분이 원하는 모든 it인증시험자료들을 선사할 수 있습니다.

ST0-029 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/ST0-029.html

NO.1 How many client installation packages are required to install Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 with
all available components?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which failover option is available in Symantec Endpoint Protection?
A. One manager can fail over between two databases in a single site.
B. One client can fail over between two managers in a single site.
C. One manager can fail over to another Group Update Provider.
D. One client can fail over between two databases in separate sites.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.4 How does Symantec Endpoint Protection use Unmanaged Detector to find unmanaged devices on the
network?
A. It compares MAC addresses to a list of known hosts.
B. It receives logon failures notifications from an LDAP server.
C. It pings clients on port 80 to trigger a response from managed clients.
D. It attempts to make http connections with clients in an address range.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029인증

NO.5 Which two external databases does Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager support? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
Answer: AC

Symantec기출문제   ST0-029자격증   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.6 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.7 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

Symantec시험문제   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.9 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

Symantec시험문제   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029자료

NO.10 Which four events trigger an Auto-Protect scan? (Select four.)
A. create
B. open
C. archive
D. move
E. rename
F. run
Answer: ACDF

Symantec인증   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029 dumps

NO.11 What is the maximum number of clients that the embedded database can support?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029자료

NO.12 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

Symantec인증   ST0-029   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029   ST0-029 dumps

NO.13 In which group can you NOT create new subgroups?
A. Global
B. Subgroup
C. Temporary
D. Administrator-created
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   ST0-029최신덤프   ST0-029자격증   ST0-029기출문제   ST0-029

NO.14 Upon which convention are custom Symantec Endpoint Protection Intrusion Prevention signatures
based?
A. Generic Exploit Blocking
B. Cisco IDS
C. SNORT
D. Tripwire
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   ST0-029 pdf   ST0-029자료   ST0-029

NO.15 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

Symantec시험문제   ST0-029   ST0-029 dump   ST0-029 dumps   ST0-029

NO.16 What is the maximum number of clients that a single Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager can
support?
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029자료

NO.17 On which two operating systems can you install Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? (Select
two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Vista Ultimate
B. Microsoft Windows NT Server
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
Answer: CD

Symantec기출문제   ST0-029 dumps   ST0-029   ST0-029 dump

NO.18 Which component must be installed prior to installing Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Apache Tomcat Server
B. Microsoft Internet Authentication Server (IAS)
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
D. Sun Java Runtime Environment (JRE)
Answer: C

Symantec자료   ST0-029   ST0-029자격증

NO.19 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029 dump   ST0-029기출문제   ST0-029

NO.20 Which two statements are true about Symantec Network Access Control? (Select two.)
A. It is integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console and a
single shared client.
B. It is partially integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console
and compatible clients.
C. It is integrated into and included with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but requires an additional
license to enable the network access control features.
D. It is on the roadmap to be integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 in a future maintenance
pack release.
E. It is not integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, although both clients may be installed on
any supported host without any operational issues.
Answer: AC

Symantec인증   ST0-029기출문제   ST0-029자료

NO.21 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

Symantec dump   ST0-029   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029시험문제

NO.22 Which two roles can Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager assign to managed clients? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Group Update Provider
C. Unmanaged Detector
D. Database Replicator
Answer: BC

Symantec   ST0-029 dumps   ST0-029 pdf   ST0-029

NO.23 Which two statements describe the interactions between Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 and
Quarantine Server? (Select two.)
A. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, which
forwards the files to the Quarantine Server.
B. Clients upload log data to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and upload quarantined files to
Quarantine Server.
C. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to the Quarantine Server, which forwards the log data to
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager sends quarantine policies, which define the location of the
Quarantine Server, to managed clients.
E. The Quarantine Server sends its location and quarantine policies and rules to all clients.
Answer: BD

Symantec자료   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.24 A company is interested in making sure that their remote VPN users have compliant systems before
joining the corporate network.
Which two Symantec Network Access Control methods are recommended? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: BC

Symantec   ST0-029최신덤프   ST0-029

NO.25 How do requirements for installing Symantec Network Access Control relate to installing various
components of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. It does NOT install on any host that is used as either the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager or a
Group Update Provider.
B. It installs in the same client package as all of the Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
C. It does NOT install on any client unless Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed.
D. It installs and is automatically enabled when the Network Threat Protection component of Symantec
Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed on any client.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029 pdf

NO.26 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029시험문제   ST0-029 dump

NO.27 Which parameter is unique to each Symantec Endpoint Protection client?
A. CUID
B. GUID
C. SUID
D. RUID
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   ST0-029 pdf   ST0-029   ST0-029자격증

NO.28 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.29 Symantec released a new version of Symantec Endpoint Protection client software. An administrator
needs to find out what versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection are currently in the network.
Which report provides this information?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

Symantec인증   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029덤프

NO.30 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029덤프   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-025
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 100 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-025   ST0-025자료

NO.2 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-025 dump   ST0-025   ST0-025인증   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.3 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-025 dump   ST0-025시험문제   ST0-025

NO.4 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025 dump   ST0-025인증

NO.5 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

Symantec자료   ST0-025인증   ST0-025기출문제   ST0-025

NO.6 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.7 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

Symantec시험문제   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.8 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

Symantec   ST0-025덤프   ST0-025 dumps   ST0-025

NO.9 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025덤프

NO.10 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.11 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-025시험문제   ST0-025   ST0-025시험문제

NO.12 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

Symantec자료   ST0-025최신덤프   ST0-025기출문제   ST0-025덤프   ST0-025최신덤프

NO.13 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.14 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-025덤프   ST0-025   ST0-025시험문제   ST0-025시험문제

NO.15 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   ST0-025   ST0-025자격증   ST0-025 dump   ST0-025 dump

NO.16 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.17 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.18 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

Symantec   ST0-025최신덤프   ST0-025

NO.19 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   ST0-025자료   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.20 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-025 pdf   ST0-025최신덤프   ST0-025

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우리ITExamDump에는 아주 엘리트 한 전문가들로 구성된 팀입니다 그들은 끈임 없는 연구와 자기자신만의 지식으로 많은 IT관연 덤프자료를 만들어 냄으로 여러분의 꿈을 이루어드립니다, 기존의 시험문제와 답과 시험문제분석 등입니다. ITExamDump에서 제공하는Symantec 250-270시험자료의 문제와 답은 실제시험의 문제와 답과 아주 비슷합니다. ITExamDump덤프들은 모두 보장하는 덤프들이며 여러분은 과감히 ITExamDump의 덤프를 장바구니에 넣으세요. ITExamDump에서 여러분의 꿈을 이루어 드립니다.

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250-270는Symantec의 인증시험입니다.250-270인증시험을 패스하면Symantec인증과 한 발작 더 내디딘 것입니다. 때문에250-270시험의 인기는 날마다 더해갑니다.250-270시험에 응시하는 분들도 날마다 더 많아지고 있습니다. 하지만250-270시험의 통과 율은 아주 낮습니다.250-270인증시험준비중인 여러분은 어떤 자료를 준비하였나요?

시험 번호/코드: 250-270
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix)
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NO.1 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

Symantec기출문제   250-270   250-270 pdf   250-270

NO.2 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

Symantec   250-270인증   250-270   250-270 dumps   250-270

NO.3 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.4 An administrator has created three BasicDisk storage units within the NetBackup Administration
Console (STU-A, STU-B, and STU-C). The administrator needs to create a backup policy that evenly
rotates use of each of these storage units during backup.
How can the policies or storage units be set up to accomplish this?
A. set up each of the policies to use "Any Available" storage unit
B. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Failover" option for storage unit selection
C. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Least recently selected storage unit" option
D. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Choose storage units based on order specified
above" option
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270인증   250-270   250-270

NO.5 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

Symantec dumps   250-270   250-270자격증   250-270   250-270

NO.6 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

Symantec pdf   250-270인증   250-270기출문제   250-270

NO.7 How long will a failed restore job remain in an Incomplete state prior to being moved to a Done state?
A. one day
B. three days
C. seven days
D. until the administrator cancels the restore job
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   250-270   250-270 dumps

NO.8 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

Symantec인증   250-270   250-270   250-270 dumps   250-270

NO.9 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

Symantec기출문제   250-270시험문제   250-270 pdf

NO.10 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters.
What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware
upgrade occurred?
A. Media ID generation
B. Media ID display
C. media type mapping
D. barcode rules
Answer: A

Symantec   250-270 dump   250-270최신덤프

NO.11 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-270자격증   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.12 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270자료

NO.13 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270시험문제   250-270

NO.14 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

Symantec인증   250-270기출문제   250-270

NO.15 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

Symantec pdf   250-270자격증   250-270   250-270덤프   250-270

NO.16 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

Symantec기출문제   250-270   250-270 dumps   250-270시험문제

NO.17 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

Symantec최신덤프   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.18 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

Symantec   250-270 dump   250-270

NO.19 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-270자격증   250-270   250-270

NO.20 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

Symantec dump   250-270 dumps   250-270

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Symantec ST0-095 덤프

근 몇년간IT산업이 전례없이 신속히 발전하여 IT업계에 종사하는 분들이 여느때보다 많습니다. 경쟁이 이와같이 치열한 환경속에서 누구도 대체할수 없는 자기만의 자리를 찾으려면 IT인증자격증취득은 무조건 해야 하는것이 아닌가 싶습니다. Symantec인증 ST0-095시험은 IT인증시험중 가장 인기있는 시험입니다. ITExamDump에서는 여러분이Symantec인증 ST0-095시험을 한방에 패스하도록 실제시험문제에 대비한Symantec인증 ST0-095덤프를 발췌하여 저렴한 가격에 제공해드립니다.시험패스 못할시 덤프비용은 환불처리 해드리기에 고객님께 아무런 페를 끼치지 않을것입니다.

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-095
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS))
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NO.1 What is a critical success factor when implementing workflow software?
A. It should work well with application integration software.
B. It should work well with web security software.
C. It should work well with bug tracking infrastructure.
D. It should work well with network access controls.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095기출문제   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.2 What should be in place before automatically blocking confidential data leaving the organization?
A. hard drive encryption
B. well-refined data loss policies
C. email message encryption
D. endpoint management software
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095자격증

NO.3 An administrator wants to identify and monitor systems with weak or static passwords. Which
Symantec solution can help collect this information?
A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Critical System Protection
D. Control compliance Suite
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-095 dumps   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.4 What is a key benefit of integrating multiple security-related solutions?
A. automates administration across multiple security solutions
B. develops IT security policies across security solutions
C. consolidates critical data from separate security solutions
D. enforces user policies across unrelated security solutions
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.5 An employee's computer was recently infected by a virus due to opening an attachment received
through email. Which Symantec solution could have prevented this?
A. Brightmail Traffic Shaper
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095덤프   ST0-095

NO.6 An employee has installed a video game on their company-issued laptop. Which Symantec solution
can prevent this installation in the future?
A. Altiris IT Management Suite
B. Endpoint Encryption
C. Brightmail Gateway
D. Security Information Manager
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095시험문제   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.7 What is a benefit of a security awareness program, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides an understanding of current system security settings.
B. It allows the organization to understand where critical systems reside.
C. It provides an understanding of the operational costs of security.
D. It ensures that employees understand their roles and responsibilities.
Answer:

NO.8 What are most organizations concerned with when looking at risk as it relates to impact on an asset?
A. downtime B: . revenue
C. response time
D. exposure
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-095자료   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.9 What is the primary purpose of change control in the context of security?
A. to apply changes that increase security posture
B. to prevent changes from decreasing security posture
C. to automatically apply security changes on a set schedule
D. to automatically undo changes that cause security problem
Answer: B

Symantec덤프   ST0-095인증   ST0-095   ST0-095덤프   ST0-095시험문제

NO.10 How do the security program approaches rank in order from least mature to most mature?
A. compliance, risk, IT security
B. risk. compliance, IT security
C. IT security, compliance, risk
D. IT security, risk, compliance
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-095시험문제   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095덤프   ST0-095

NO.11 Which Symantec solution can identify and block a malicious file from being downloaded in an HTTP
session?
A. Web Gateway
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Critical System Protection
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095인증

NO.12 What is the primary goal when creating a security products?
A. to assist in the compliance process
B. to ensure systems have updated patches
C. to protect information
D. to report on system configuration
Answer: C

Symantec기출문제   ST0-095최신덤프   ST0-095덤프

NO.13 Which framework is used to manage change within an IT organization?
A. Management of Risk (MOR)
B. Information Technology Asset Management (IT AM)
C. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
D. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT)
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-095시험문제   ST0-095

NO.14 How does a denial of service attack work?
A. It attempts to break the authentication mode.
B. It imitates the behavior of a valid user.
C. It cracks passwords, causing the system to crash.
D. It prevents a legitimate user from using a system or service.
Answer: D

Symantec dumps   ST0-095인증   ST0-095

NO.15 What is the primary benefit of a people-based workflow solution?
A. business process creation
B. centrally managed collaboration
C. coordination of web services
D. user-based task assignment
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095시험문제   ST0-095기출문제   ST0-095

NO.16 Which WO topics did Art Gilliland state in the Security Solutions 1.0 course as areas that Symantec
plans to invest in? (Select WO.)
A. reputation-based security
B. identity management
C. cryptography
D. cross-product management and reporting
E. security of social networkinq sites
Answer: A,D

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.17 What does the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT) framework focus
on, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. IT implementation life cycle
B. computer security concepts
C. international security procedures for audit
D. confidentiality. integrity, and availability
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095 pdf   ST0-095 dumps   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.18 Which type of attack would be most successful against the password T63k#s23A?
A. cross site scripting
B. brute-force
C. dictionary
D.SOL injection
Answer: B

Symantec시험문제   ST0-095 pdf   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.19 Malware that contains a backdoor is placed on a system that will later be used by the cybercriminal to
gain access to the system. The cybercriminal was successful in which phase of the breach?
A: capture
B: discovery
C: incursion
D: exfiltration
Answer: C

Symantec자격증   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095덤프

NO.20 Which two benefits does patch management provide an organization? (Select two.)
A. modifies usability or performance of a computer
B. removes vulnerabilities through software fixes
C. updates operating systems and ensures compliance
D. migrates the operating system
E. counts software licenses installed
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ST0-095기출문제   ST0-095 pdf

NO.21 A cybercriminal wants to break into an organization using a SOL injection attack. What will the
cybercriminal do to start the attack?
A. enter a command at a user prompt
B. locate a user input field on the company's web page
C. gain administrative access to the database
D. use SOL slammer malware
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095기출문제   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.22 Which challenge does security information and event management (SIEM) help solve for customers?
A. monitoring for performance problem on servers
B. monitoring configuration changes in applications
C. monitoring for business compliance issues
D. monitoring for security violations
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.23 What is the purpose of defining a technical standard?
A. to identify minimum system configuration requirements for assets
B. to define roles and responsibilities within an organization
C. to create documented exceptions or waivers to a policy
D. to implement the guidelines directed by management
Answer: A

Symantec pdf   ST0-095시험문제   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.24 customer is experiencing image-based spam and phishing attacks that are negatively impacting
messaging flow. Which Symantec solution should be recommended to this customer?
A. Brightmail Gateway
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Network Access Control
D. Backup Exec System Recovery
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095 dumps   ST0-095덤프   ST0-095   ST0-095최신덤프

NO.25 Which type of breach source is Albert Gonzalez, as mentioned in the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. well-meaning insider
B. malicious insider
C. cybercriminal
D. disgruntled employee
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   ST0-095자료   ST0-095인증   ST0-095   ST0-095시험문제   ST0-095 dumps

NO.26 What is one of the benefits of the assessment step within the security policylifecycle, according to the
Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides the actionable configuration standards.
B. It allows organizations to understand where critical assets reside.
C. It educates the employees and manages the enforcement of a products.
D. It analyzes the policythrough interviews.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-095인증   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.27 What are traditional, definition-based malware scanning technologies unable to identify?
A. new or unique threats unless a sample has been submitted
B. older threats or threats that are inactive in the wild
C. polymorphic threats that have been discovered in an antivirus lab
D. threats that are written to temporary locations in storage
Answer:

NO.28 Which two questions are appropriate to ask a customer in order to uncover a need for Symantec
Control Compliance Suite? (Select two.)
A. Are you meeting your required backup windows?
B. Have you recently gone through a merger or acquisition, requiring new entitlements and controls?
C. Do you need to archive email for legal discovery purposes?
D. Is your operations team struggling to keep on top of IT audit-related tasks? DE. Do you need to ensure
critical servers are deployed by authorized personnel?
1linimize
Answer:

NO.29 Which WO events could potentially be seen by a network monitoring solution in the context of
information protection? (Select WO.)
A. a program storing social security numbers in a SOL database
B. a hacker exfiltrating data out of an organization
C. a malicious insider emailing data out of an organization
D. an employee on their home ISP webmailing confidential data
E. an administrator incorrectly configuring email servers
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ST0-095 dump   ST0-095최신덤프   ST0-095

NO.30 What do software patches affect within a company's environment?
A. applications only
B. operating systems only
C. operating systems and applications only
D. operating systems. applications. and hardware configurations
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

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시험 번호/코드: 250-314
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010)
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NO.1 Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a
Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?
A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers
B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers
C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers
D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers
Answer: C

Symantec자료   250-314   250-314   250-314   250-314인증

NO.2 To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size
limitations, which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)
A. alert history
B. catalogs
C. install files
D. job history
E. backup-to-disk files
Answer: A,D

Symantec   250-314   250-314

NO.3 Which two views are available in the Job Monitor in Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A. Job List
B. Calendar
C. System Summary
D. Alerts
E. System Detail
Answer: A,B

Symantec   250-314인증   250-314   250-314

NO.4 How is publishing disabled for a remote server on which the Remote Agent for Windows Systems is
installed?
A. run Backup Exec Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
B. run the Remote Agent Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
C. run Backup Exec Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
D. run the Remote Agent Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
Answer: D

Symantec   250-314기출문제   250-314

NO.5 Which two notification delivery methods can receive job logs as part of the notification process? (Select
two.)
A. pager
B. printer
C. email
D. fax
E. Instant Messenger
Answer: B,C

Symantec시험문제   250-314   250-314   250-314   250-314시험문제   250-314시험문제

NO.6 What is used to perform database maintenance tasks on the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 database?
A. VXGather.exe
B. DBUtility.exe
C. BEConfigure.exe
D. BEUtility.exe
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   250-314덤프   250-314자료   250-314 dumps   250-314 pdf

NO.7 Which two statements are true about the "Recovered Jobs" Error Handling rule? (Select two.)
A. It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.
B. It is enabled by default.
C. It is used to recover all failed jobs.
D. It retries the job based on the "Recovered Jobs" error handling rule settings.
E. It terminates the active job and sends an alert.
Answer: B,D

Symantec시험문제   250-314   250-314기출문제   250-314 dump

NO.8 Which utility can collect the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 log files?
A. VxGather.exe
B. VxCollect.exe
C. SGMon.exe
D. SymCollect.exe
Answer: A

Symantec pdf   250-314   250-314   250-314인증   250-314덤프

NO.9 What is the purpose of a temporary staging area in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A. uses a cache area to apply encryption to data during backup
B. allows individual items to be recovered from a tape-based image
C. allows database backups to be cataloged enabling granular recovery
D. uses available system RAM to process datadeduplication during backup
Answer: B

Symantec dump   250-314덤프   250-314   250-314자격증   250-314

NO.10 Which setting in Tools -> Options can be changed to affect how long job history and job logs are kept?
A. Job Status and Recovery
B. Log management
C. Database maintenance
D. Preferences
Answer: C

Symantec   250-314기출문제   250-314시험문제   250-314최신덤프

NO.11 Which two data categories are available through standard reports in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
(Select two.)
A. alerts
B. policy templates
C. jobs
D. accounts
E. catalogs
Answer: A,C

Symantec dumps   250-314 pdf   250-314최신덤프

NO.12 How should an administrator determine why a job failed?
A. review catalogs
B. inspect the Job Monitor
C. review the job log
D. inspect policy history
Answer: D

Symantec자료   250-314   250-314자료

NO.13 Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central
Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-314   250-314 pdf   250-314

NO.14 Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E

Symantec자료   250-314자격증   250-314 dump   250-314 dumps

NO.15 In the Job Monitor tab, when is the "Created On" column visible?
A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled
B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)
C. when the Date field is added to the View properties
D. when the backup job state is Running
Answer: B

Symantec   250-314   250-314

NO.16 A restore job fails with access denied errors. What is the next step that should be taken?
A. start the Backup Exec Remote Agent on the appropriate machine
B. enable restore rights in Logon Account Management
C. check the restore job credentials for appropriate rights
D. change the logon account for the Backup Exec Remote Agent
Answer: A

Symantec덤프   250-314   250-314   250-314

NO.17 Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec data
directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
Answer: B

Symantec   250-314자료   250-314

NO.18 A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option 'Write SCSI pass-through mode', which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010 to write
directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

Symantec dumps   250-314기출문제   250-314 dump

NO.19 An administrator needs to restore several different versions of an existing file. Which option should be
chosen?
A. Restore Redirection
B. Restore Versions
C. File Versioning
D. File Redirection
Answer: D

Symantec   250-314 dumps   250-314   250-314시험문제   250-314

NO.20 Which Restore Selections view displays a list of protected servers regardless of which media contains
the data?
A. View by Computer
B. View by Server
C. View by Resource
D. View Selection Details
Answer: C

Symantec   250-314인증   250-314 pdf   250-314

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-099
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Archiving and eDiscovery 2010)
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NO.1 A consultant must calculate the EV archival rate while delivering an assessment service. Which
database should a consultant query to calculate the archival rate?
A. Directory Database
B. Fingerprint Database
C. Vault Store Database
D. FSA Reporting Database
Answer: C

Symantec dump   ASC-099 dumps   ASC-099시험문제   ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.2 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A. ongoing tech support
B. review of the configuration report
C. thirty day post deployment guidance
D. periodic assessment
Answer: D

Symantec dump   ASC-099 dumps   ASC-099최신덤프   ASC-099

NO.3 Where can a consultant look to find diagnostic logging from an Enterprise Vault server installation?
A. Application Event Log
B. ev_client_log_[timestamp].txt
C. Symantec Enterprise Vault Event Log
D. EVinstall.log
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two Enterprise Vault components require a dedicated SQL database? (Select two.)
A. Vault Store Group
B. Index Server Group
C. Vault Store
D. Index Volume
E. Vault Store partition
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What are two valid names for the scripts provided on the Enterprise Vault media to assist in configuring
the Vault Service Account (VSA)? (Select two.)
A. SetEVServicePermissions.ps1
B. SetEVExchangePermissions.ps1
C. SetEVThrottlingPolicy.ps1
D. SetExchangeThrottlingPolicy.ps1
E. SetEVExchThrottingPermissions.ps1
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which two prerequisites are required to install the Enterprise Vault Administration Console on a
stand-alone workstation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer Web Controls
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 or higher
C. Microsoft Windows Administration Tools Pack
D. Microsoft Internet Information Services
E. Microsoft Exchange Management Console
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ASC-099   ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.7 How many Index Server Groups can a consultant associate with a Vault Store?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
Answer: A

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NO.8 In order to back up Enterprise Vault with NetBackup, which Enterprise Vault components require the
NetBackup client?
A. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the Discovery Accelerator Server
B. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the SQL Server
C. the EV Server and the DA Server
D. the EV Server and the SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.9 Who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support if a consultant fails to educate the
customer on the support process?
A. the consultant
B. Symantec Support
C. the customer
D. the project manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the minimum amount of memory required to support 64-bit Indexing?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Answer: C

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NO.11 A consultant just deployed Domino Mailbox Archiving and is about to configure the Enable Mailbox
Message. Which file would need to be edited and placed in the root folder of Enterprise Vault installation?
A. EnableMailboxMessage.nsf
B. EVMessages.nsf
C. EnableMailboxMessageDomino.nsf
D. EVEnableMessage.nsf
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two ways should a consultant prioritize identifiable project risks as part of a mitigation strategy?
(Select two.)
A. probability of risk
B. sequence of risk occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project success
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which two are benefits of using Data Classification Services with EV? (Select two.)
A. re-classify content that has already been archived
B. assign retention categories based on the item's content
C. automatically delete emails that are not critical business records
D. automatically place items on E-Discovery legal hold
E. direct integration with the Clearwell E-Discovery Platform
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 What should a consultant do when configuring the pagefile on a system running the Indexing Service.?
A. The pagefile should be located on volume where active indexes are located for best performance.
B. The pagefile should be set to be managed by the OS.
C. The pagefile should be set to 1x of the RAM.
D. The pagefile should be set to 1.5x of the RAM.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are two main components of Data Classification Services (DCS)? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Oracle
D. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
E. Automatic Classification Engine
Answer: C,D

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-093
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
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Q&A: 70 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093 dumps

NO.2 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093   ASC-093인증

NO.3 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

Symantec덤프   ASC-093기출문제   ASC-093최신덤프

NO.6 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.8 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093기출문제

NO.9 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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